[Aug-2021] SHRM SHRM-CP Dumps – Reduce Your Chance of Failure in SHRM-CP Exam

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NEW QUESTION 64
Which of the following types of health care plans is generally the most costly for patients but allows them to make their own selection of facilities and physicians?

• A. PPO
• B. FFS
• C. POS
• D. HMO

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation: An FFS, or Feeforservice, plan is generally the most costly for patients but allows them to make their own selection of facilities and physicians. A PPO, or Preferred Provider Organization, plan does not require that patients first contact a "gatekeeper" for medical treatment but allows patients to choose from a broad network. A POS, or Point of Service, plan offers a network (like a PPO) but allows patients to meet with a physician outside this network and request reimbursement later on. An HMO, or Health Maintenance Organization, plan does require a "gatekeeper" but also focuses on lower health care costs for patients and care that aims to prevent higher costs later on.

 

NEW QUESTION 65
How many managers does each employee report to in a matrix organization?

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation: In a matrix organization, each employee reports to two managers: a product manager and a functional manager. That is, each employee reports to someone responsible for overseeing the development of a particular product, and someone responsible for overseeing certain types of employees. Matrix organizations require a great deal of cooperation and communication.

 

NEW QUESTION 66
Which of the following is not considered a topdown method of communication delivery?

• A. Newsletters
• B. Posters
• C. Brown bag meetings
• D. Bulletin board postings

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation: A brownbag meeting is considered more of a bottomup form of communication: at a brown bag meeting, employees are invited to take part in the discussion and share their ideas. Topdown communication would focus more on the management informing employees of decisions. As a result, the other answer choices reflect more of topdown communication: posters, bulletin board postings, and newsletters.

 

NEW QUESTION 67
Which of the following best describes adverse impact in the selection of employees for a company?

• A. A selection rate among a protected class of more than 95% the selection rate of the highest group
• B. Willful discrimination against a specific group when selecting new employees
• C. A selection rate among a protected class of less than 80% the selection rate of the highest group
• D. The negative impact of failing to diversify the selection rate among employees
• E. Any noncompliance with the rules pertaining to the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Process

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation: The phrase adverse impact or unintentional discrimination refers to the selection rate of a protected class being less than 80% of the selection rate of the highest group. In other words, if the selection rate of females is less than 80% the selection rate of males, there is an adverse impact on females by the hiring process. Answer choice A is the opposite of the correct definition of adverse impact, so it is incorrect. Answer choice B is close to the meaning of adverse impact - in a broad sense - but it is not specific enough to be correct. Answer choice C is also too broad, particularly because there is far more to the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Process than just selection rate. And answer choice E is incorrect; while adverse impact might be interpreted as discrimination, it is not necessarily the direct result of discrimination.

 

NEW QUESTION 68
Which of the following best represents what an employer can do when employees begin to unionize?

• A. Employers may block employees who begin the process of unionization
• B. Employers are not allowed to discuss unionization with employees
• C. Employers may explain problems with unionization to employees
• D. Employers may contact union leaders and forbid unionization.
• E. Employers may threaten to replace workers who choose to unionize

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation: When an employer discovers that employees are beginning to unionize, the employer is not allowed to prevent unionization. The employer can, however, provide information to employees about the problems involved with unionization. Answer choice A is incorrect because the employer may not contact union leaders and forbid unionization. Answer choice B is incorrect because employers are not allowed to block employees who begin to unionize. Answer choice C is incorrect because employers may not threaten to replace workers who choose to unionize (although employers may replace workers during a lawful economic strike). Answer choice E is incorrect because employers are allowed to discuss unionization with employees; however, the substance of that discussion can be restricted by law.

 

NEW QUESTION 69
Which of the following is not considered a bottomup method of communication delivery?

• A. Individual letters
• B. Opendoor policy
• C. Webcasts
• D. Staff meetings

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: Bottomup methods of communication include an opendoor policy, webcasts, and staff meetings; in each case, the employees are considered an active part of the discussion and even decision making. Individual letters represent a topdown method of communication, because topdown communication focuses more on the management informing employees of decisions.

 

NEW QUESTION 70
Which method of reporting does the Department of Labor prefer with regard to time worked by employees who are nonexempt under the Fair Labor Standards Act?

• A. selected reporting
• B. exception reporting
• C. negative time reporting
• D. positive time reporting

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: The Department of Labor prefers that businesses use positive time reporting with regard to the time worked by employees who are nonexempt under the Fair Labor Standards Act. This method is considered better because it gives a clear indication of the hours worked, without the need for any calculation. For instance, in the other acceptable method, exception reporting, the business establishes a baseline for time worked and only notes deviations from the baseline. This requires the DOL to consider both the baseline and the exceptions. Positive time reporting is simpler.

 

NEW QUESTION 71
Which of the following is not a part of the due diligence process that a human resources professional must review during a merger?

• A. Whistleblower prevention
• B. Employment contracts
• C. Affirmative Action plans
• D. OSHA compliance
• E. Union activity

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: A due diligence process during a merger should focus primarily on recording the following basics of company employee details: documentation regarding employee names, employment contracts, I9 forms, benefit contracts, compensation information, company policy and procedures (such as handbooks for employees), compliance documentation for equal opportunity, information about company labor relations (including labor activity), all information about potential legal situations (such as legal violations, sexual harassment claims, and disputes about employee terminations), and legal compliance documentation for COBRA, FMLA, WARN, and OSHA. This means that answer choices A, B, D, and E all fall within the boundaries of due diligence for a merger, leaving only answer choice
C. What is more, whistleblower prevention is not necessarily legal - as there are a number of laws designed to protect whistleblowers - so a company could not legally retain or utilize whistleblower techniques.

 

NEW QUESTION 72
In which of the following situations would the use of copyrighted material not fall under the definition of fair use?

• A. Limited copies of the material
• B. Educational purposes within the organization
• C. Use of a single paragraph from a book
• D. Addition of quoted information into the company motto

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: Fair use includes the following scenarios: use of material for educational purposes, limited copying of material (i.e., 10 or fewer copies for a limited number of individuals), and use of a single paragraph from a book (i.e., small percentage of total). Using quoted information-that is, information from another source-within a company motto is definitely not considered fair use; as the company motto represents the company and, in this sense, applies to its larger goal of making a profit, the use of the quoted material would be considered a copyright violation.

 

NEW QUESTION 73
According to the Walsh Healy Public Contracts Act of 1936, what is the contract threshold for government contractors to be required to pay the local minimum wage to employees?

• A. $10,000
• B. $5,000
• C. $20,000
• D. $15,000

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: The Walsh Healy Public Contracts Act of 1936 determines that for any government contract over $10,000 the local minimum wage requirement applies to workers. The other answer choice options ($5,000; $15,000; and $20,000) are either too low or already fall within the minimum requirement of $10,000.

 

NEW QUESTION 74
Which of the following is a provision of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938?

• A. The maximum work week is 45 hours.
• B. All previous compensation laws are obsolete.
• C. Overtime pay must be 1.5 times the normal hourly wage.
• D. Children may work unlimited hours, provided working conditions are safe.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation: One provision of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 is that overtime pay must be 1.5 times the normal hourly wage. Employers may give compensatory time off in lieu of overtime pay. An employee should receive 1.5 times as much compensatory time off as he has worked in overtime. The FLSA established that children may only work limited hours, that the maximum work week is 40 hours, and that some previous compensation laws remain valid.

 

NEW QUESTION 75
Which of the following is a strategic function of the human resources department?

• A. Keeping employee data confidential
• B. Creating retention plans
• C. Ensuring compliance with federal regulations
• D. Recruiting new employees

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation: Creating retention plans is a strategic function of the human resources department. This activity is considered strategic because it is concerned with maintaining an optimal workforce over the long term. Recruiting new employees is more of an operational function, in that it is a practical application of the organization's strategic planning. Insuring compliance with federal regulations and maintaining the confidentiality of employee data are considered administrative functions, because they are part of the normal course of business for a human resources department.

 

NEW QUESTION 76
What is the recommended minimum amount of advance notice that employers should provide employees before a scheduled performance evaluation?

• A. 7 days
• B. 5 days
• C. 3 days
• D. 2 days

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: Managers are encouraged to give employees about one week advance notice for a scheduled performance evaluation. Five days might be good, but a full week is better and avoids "springing it" on the employee. Giving the employee 2 days or 3 days is far too short.

 

NEW QUESTION 77
The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures declare that

• A. employers must use the selection tool that has the least adverse impact on protected classes.
• B. a selection tool has an adverse impact when the hiring rate for protected classes is less than half the rate for the class hired most often.
• C. employers may never use selection tools that adversely impact protected classes.
• D. employers may use whichever selection tool they prefer.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures declare that employers must use the selection tool that has the least adverse impact on protected classes. Of course, this provision is only applicable when the employer has access to more than one selection tool. When there is no other option, employers may use selection tools that adversely impact protected classes. According to the UGESP, an adverse impact exists when the selection rate for a protected class is 4/5 or less of the normal selection rate.

 

NEW QUESTION 78
The Hierarchy of Needs Theory (1954) is attributed to which of the following researchers?

• A. Fredrick Herzberg
• B. Abraham Maslow
• C. Victor Vroom
• D. Clayton Alderfer

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation: The Hierarchy of Needs Theory of 1954, which discusses the relationship between an employee and his job and which is also the starting point for many of the other theorists, is attributed to Abraham Maslow. Fredrick Herzberg is credited with the Motivation/Hygiene Theory of 1959; Clayton Alderfer is responsible for the ERG Theory of 1969; Victor Vroom is credited with the Expectancy Theory of 1964.

 

NEW QUESTION 79
Which of the following is defined by a union activity in which someone takes a job with a company that the union has targeted for employee unionization, and thus works to encourage employees at the new company to organize a union?

• A. Wildcatting
• B. Featherbedding
• C. Leafletting
• D. Salting

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: Salting occurs when someone takes a job with a company that the union has targeted for employee unionization, and thus works to encourage employees at the new company to organize a union. This would be viewed as a form of instigation and is thus not a fair labor practice. Wildcatting, per se, does not exist, although there is a wildcat strike, which occurs in spite of a contractual prohibition against strikes. Featherbedding refers to the activity of keeping an employee in a position despite that position being considered obsolete due to changes in technology. And leafleting is a union activity that involves passing out leaflets about the union's position and thus drumming up support.

 

NEW QUESTION 80
In which business structure do partners exist mainly as investors, without much influence on daily operations?

• A. sole proprietorship
• B. general partnership
• C. joint venture
• D. limited liability partnership

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: In a limited liability partnership, partners exist mainly as investors, without much influence on daily operations. This arrangement, which is also known simply as a limited partnership, is typical of professional businesses, like legal or accounting firms. A sole proprietorship is initiated and operated by a single person. This person is entitled to all of the profits, but is liable for all business activities. In a general partnership, the business operates according to a preset agreement, and liability is shared by a group of partners. The joint venture is a form of general partnership created for a particular purpose or a restricted amount of time.

 

NEW QUESTION 81
Which of the following pieces of legislation made it illegal for a business to discriminate against an employee due to his national origin?

• A. HIPAA
• B. SarbanesOxley Act
• C. Rehabilitation Act
• D. Title VII

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 made it illegal for a business to discriminate against an employee due to his national origin. The SarbanesOxley Act was intended to improve accounting practices within public companies. The Rehabilitation Act penalized businesses for discriminating against employees who have a disability. HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, in part, protects workers against losing their health coverage immediately if they lose their jobs.

 

NEW QUESTION 82
Administrative laws, such as agency rules and regulations, take effect how many days after being published in the Federal Register?

• A. 45 days
• B. 60 days
• C. 15 days
• D. 30 days

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: Administrative laws take effect 30 days after being published in the Federal Register. The option for 15 days is far too short, and the options for 45 days and 60 days reflect a time frame in which the law would already have taken effect.

 

NEW QUESTION 83
If Congress passes a bill while in session, and whether or not it is signed by the President, that bill becomes law within how many days?

• A. 12 days
• B. 20 days
• C. 15 days
• D. 10 days

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: If Congress passes a bill while in session, and whether or not it is signed by the President, that bill becomes law within 10 days. The other answer choices-12 days, 15 days, and 20 days-are all too high.

 

NEW QUESTION 84
OSHA operates under three primary expectations for employers. Which of the following is not one of these expectations?

• A. Ensure that occupational safety standards are met
• B. Provide employees a safe place to work
• C. Ensure that federal safety standards are met
• D. Educate employees about safety in the workplace

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: While education about workplace safety is implied, it is not one of the three primary expectations of OSHA. These expectations are as follows: provide employees a safe place to work; ensure that federal safety standards are met; ensure that occupational safety standards are met.

 

NEW QUESTION 85
Which of the following correlation coefficients would indicate the strongest relationship between two variables?

• A. 0.9
• B. +0.7
• C. 0.1
• D. 0

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: Of the given correlation coefficients, 0.9 would indicate the strongest relationship between the two variables. Correlation coefficients exist on a range from 1 to +1. The strength of the correlation is indicated by the distance from zero, or absolute value, of the coefficient. In other words, whether a correlation coefficient is positive or negative does not influence its strength.

 

NEW QUESTION 86
What are Philip B.
Crosby's four absolutes of quality?

• A. team learning, systems thinking, personal mastery, and shared vision
• B. communication, recruiting, evaluation, and planning
• C. unfreezing, moving, refreezing, and evaluating
• D. conformance to requirements, prevention, performance standards, and measurement

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation: Philip B.
Crosby's four absolutes of quality are conformance to requirements, prevention, performance standards, and measurement. Crosby considered effective management the most important determinant of quality. In his view, the first criterion of quality was the extent to which products and processes conform to the standards set by management. Prevention refers to intentional efforts to avoid mistakes. Performance standards refers to establishing high expectations. Measurement refers to a comprehensive program for assessing employee performance.

 

NEW QUESTION 87
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