[Full-Version] 2024 New Preparation Guide of ISACA CRISC Exam

CRISC Practice Exam - 1478 Unique Questions

To be eligible for the CRISC certification, candidates must have at least three years of experience in IT risk management and information systems control, as well as a strong understanding of IT governance principles. CRISC exam is typically taken by IT professionals, such as risk managers, IT auditors, information security professionals, and compliance officers. Passing the CRISC certification exam demonstrates that the candidate has the skills and knowledge required to manage risks and ensure the effective implementation of controls within their organization's IT systems.

 

NEW QUESTION # 219
What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

• A. Risk treatment options
• B. Relative positions on the risk map
• C. The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response
• D. Capability of enterprise to implement

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 220
Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

• A. Testing the DLP rule change control process
• B. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers
• C. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers
• D. Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference: https://www.esecurityplanet.com/network-security/data-loss-prevention-dlp.html

NEW QUESTION # 221
Your project is an agricultural-based project that deals with plant irrigation systems. You have
discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profit. If your organization seizes this opportunity it would be an example of what risk response?

• A. Explanation:
  This is an example of exploiting a positive risk - a by-product of a project is an excellent example of exploiting a risk. Exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats that appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response.
• B. Opportunistic
• C. Enhancing
• D. Exploiting
• E. Positive

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
is incorrect. Opportunistic is not a valid risk response. Answer: B is incorrect. This is an example of a positive risk, but positive is not a risk response. Answer: A is incorrect. Enhancing is a positive risk response that describes actions taken to increase the odds of a risk event to happen.

NEW QUESTION # 222
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

• A. a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.
• B. the magnitude of an impact.
• C. a function of the likelihood and impact.
• D. the likelihood of a given threat.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 223
Which of the following components of risk scenarios has the potential to generate internal or external threat on an enterprise?

• A. Actors
• B. Assets
• C. Events
• D. Timing dimension

Answer: A

Explanation:
Components of risk scenario that are needed for its analysis are: Actor: Actors are those components of risk scenario that has the potential to generate the threat that can be internal or external, human or non-human. Internal actors are within the enterprise like staff, contractors, etc. On the other hand, external actors include outsiders, competitors, regulators and the market. Threat type: Threat type defines the nature of threat, that is, whether the threat is malicious, accidental, natural or intentional. Event: Event is an essential part of a scenario; a scenario always has to contain an event. Event describes the happenings like whether it is a disclosure of confidential information, or interruption of a system or project, or modification, theft, destruction, etc. Asset: Assets are the economic resources owned by business or company. Anything tangible or intangible that one possesses, usually considered as applicable to the payment of one's debts, is considered an asset. An asset can also be defined as a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected. Tangible asset: Tangible are those asset that has physical attributes and can be detected with the senses, e.g., people, infrastructure, and finances. Intangible asset: Intangible are those asset that has no physical attributes and cannot be detected with the senses, e.g., information, reputation and customer trust. Timing dimension: The timing dimension is the application of the scenario to detect time to respond to or recover from an event. It identifies if the event occur at a critical moment and its duration. It also specifies the time lag between the event and the consequence, that is, if there an immediate consequence (e.g., network failure, immediate downtime) or a delayed consequence (e.g., wrong IT architecture with accumulated high costs over a long period of time).

NEW QUESTION # 224
You are the project manager of RFT project. You have identified a risk that the enterprise's IT system and application landscape is so complex that, within a few years, extending capacity will become difficult and maintaining software will become very expensive. To overcome this risk, the response adopted is re- architecture of the existing system and purchase of new integrated system. In which of the following risk prioritization options would this case be categorized?

• A. Deferrals
• B. Business case to be made
• C. Contagious risk
• D. Quick win

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
This is categorized as a Business case to be made because the project cost is very large. The response to be implemented requires quite large investment. Therefore it comes under business case to be made.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It addresses costly risk response to a low risk. But here the response is less costly than that of business case to be made.
B: Quick win is very effective and efficient response that addresses medium to high risk. But in this the response does not require large investments.
D: This is not risk response prioritization option, instead it is a type of risk that happen with the several of the enterprise's business partners within a very short time frame.

NEW QUESTION # 225
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?

• A. Evaluating risk impact
• B. Establishing key performance indicators
• C. Conducting internal audits
• D. Creating quarterly risk reports

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION # 226
Which of the following establishes mandatory rules, specifications and metrics used to measure compliance against quality, value, etc?

• A. Framework
• B. Legal requirements
• C. Practices
• D. Standard

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Standard establishes mandatory rules, specifications and metrics used to measure compliance against quality, value, etc. Standards are usually intended for compliance purposes and to provide assurance to others who interact with a process or outputs of a process.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Frameworks are generally accepted, business-process-oriented structures that establish a common language and enable repeatable business processes.
B: These are legal rules underneath which project has to be.
D: Practices are frequent or usual actions performed as an application of knowledge. A leading practice would be defined as an action that optimally applies knowledge in a particular area. They are issued by a
"recognized authority" that is appropriate to the subject matter. issuing bodies may include professional associations and academic institutions or commercial entities such as software vendors. They are generally based on a combination of research, expert insight and peer review.

NEW QUESTION # 227
Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

• A. Inherent risk
• B. Risk velocity
• C. Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
• D. Risk likelihood and impact

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation

NEW QUESTION # 228
When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management's PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:

• A. cost-benefit analysis
• B. alignment with risk appetite
• C. investment portfolio
• D. key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION # 229
Who is MOST likely to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy?

• A. Internal audit director
• B. Chief financial officer
• C. Information security director
• D. Chief information officer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 230
An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

• A. Internal audit plan
• B. Control self-assessment (CSA)
• C. Balanced scorecard
• D. Capability maturity level

Answer: C

Explanation:
A balanced scorecard is a strategic management tool that helps to measure and communicate the performance of an organization or a program against its goals and objectives. A balanced scorecard typically consists of four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. Each perspective has a set of key performance indicators (KPIs) that reflect the critical success factors and desired outcomes of the organization or the program1.
A balanced scorecard is most useful for reporting on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program, because it can provide a comprehensive and balanced view of the program's performance across multiple dimensions. A balanced scorecard can help to align the IT risk management program with the business strategy and vision, and to demonstrate the value and impact of the program to the stakeholders. A balanced scorecard can also help to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the IT risk management program, and to monitor and improve the program's processes and outcomes2.
The other options are not as useful as a balanced scorecard for reporting on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. A capability maturity level is a measure of the maturity and quality of a process or a practice, based on a predefined set of criteria and standards. A capability maturity level can help to assess and benchmark the IT risk management program's processes and practices, but it does not provide a holistic view of the program's performance and results3. An internal audit plan is a document that outlines the scope, objectives, and methodology of an internal audit activity. An internal audit plan can help to evaluate and verify the IT risk management program's controls and compliance, but it does not provide a strategic view of the program's goals and outcomes4. A control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that involves the participation of the process owners and the staff in assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of their own controls. A CSA can help to enhance the awareness and ownership of the IT risk management program's controls, but it does not provide an objective and independent view of the program's performance and impact.
References =
* Balanced Scorecard Basics - Balanced Scorecard Institute
* Using the Balanced Scorecard to Measure and Manage IT Risk
* Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) Overview
* Internal Audit Planning: The Basics - The IIA
* [Control Self-Assessment - ISACA]

NEW QUESTION # 231
An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

• A. Request an external audit.
• B. Perform an impact assessment.
• C. Perform a penetration test.
• D. Escalate the risk to senior management.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The risk practitioner's best course of action when an organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system is to perform an impact assessment, as it involves estimating the potential consequences or damage that the vulnerability may cause to the system and its related business processes, and prioritizing the risk response accordingly. The other options are not the best courses of action, as they may not address the urgency or severity of the vulnerability, or may require the prior knowledge of the impact or risk level, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page
100.

NEW QUESTION # 232
A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management, the risk practitioner should explain:

• A. the current level of risk is within tolerance.
• B. mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.
• C. this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent, but lower impact risk scenarios.
• D. an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION # 233
Which of the following is the HIGHEST risk of a policy that inadequately defines data and system ownership?

• A. Users may have unauthorized access to originate, modify or delete data
• B. Specific user accountability cannot be established
• C. User management coordination does not exist
• D. Audit recommendations may not be implemented

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
There is an increased risk without a policy defining who has the responsibility for granting access to specific data or systems, as one could gain system access without a justified business needs. There is better chance that business objectives will be properly supported when there is appropriate ownership.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: These risks are not such significant as compared to unauthorized access.

NEW QUESTION # 234
A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar:

• A. risk response
• B. risk score
• C. risk likelihood.
• D. risk impact

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 235
In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?

• A. Feasibility
• B. Implementation
• C. Design
• D. Development

Answer: C

Explanation:
Controls should be incorporated into system specifications in the design phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), because this is the phase where the system requirements are translated into detailed specifications and architectures that define how the system will be built and operated. Incorporating controls in the design phase ensures that the system is secure, reliable, and compliant from the start, and reduces the cost and complexity of implementing controls later in the SDLC. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not the phases where controls are incorporated into system specifications. The implementation phase is the phase where the system is installed, configured, and tested. The development phase is the phase where the system is coded, integrated, and tested. The feasibility phase is the phase where the system concept and scope are defined and evaluated. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions

NEW QUESTION # 236
A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

• A. Perform a root cause analysis.
• B. Review incident handling procedures.
• C. Update the KRI threshold.
• D. Recommend additional controls.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 237
In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

• A. Business objectives
• B. The asset profile
• C. Key risk indicators (KRIs)
• D. The control catalog

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION # 238
Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

• A. Internal audit findings
• B. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
• C. Periodic penetration testing
• D. Risk heat maps

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 239
Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

• A. Periodic backup
• B. Cable lock
• C. Data encryption
• D. Biometrics access control

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best way to reduce the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information is to use data encryption. Data encryption is a process that transforms the data into an unreadable or unintelligible format, using a secret key or algorithm, to protect the data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Data encryption helps to reduce the risk of data theft, because even if the laptop is stolen, the data on the laptop cannot be accessed or used by the thief without the proper key or algorithm. Data encryption also helps to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts that may require the protection of sensitive data. The other options are not as effective as data encryption, although they may provide some protection for the laptop or the data. A cable lock, a periodic backup, and a biometrics access control are all examples of physical or logical controls, which may help to prevent or deter the theft of the laptop, or to recover or restore the data on the laptop, but they do not necessarily protect the data from unauthorized access or disclosure if the laptop is stolen. References = 8

NEW QUESTION # 240
You are the project manager of your enterprise. You have introduced an intrusion detection system for the control. You have identified a warning of violation of security policies of your enterprise. What type of control is an intrusion detection system (IDS)?

• A. Corrective
• B. Detective
• C. Recovery
• D. Explanation:
  An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a Management Station. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPS for other purposes,such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats, and deterring individuals from violating security policies. As IDS detects and gives warning when the violation of security policies of the enterprise occurs, it is a detective control.
• E. Preventative

Answer: B

Explanation:
is incorrect. As IDS only detects the problem when it occurs and not prior of its occurrence, it is not preventive control. Answer: B is incorrect. These controls make effort to reduce the impact of a threat from problems discovered by detective controls. As IDS only detects but nt reduce the impact, hence it is not a corrective control. Answer: D is incorrect. : These controls make efforts to overcome the impact of the incident on the business, hence IDS is not a recovery control.

NEW QUESTION # 241
Where are all risks and risk responses documented as the project progresses?

• A. Risk management plan
• B. Explanation:
  All risks, their responses, and other characteristics are documented in the risk register. As the project progresses and the conditions of the risk events change, the risk register should be updated to reflect the risk conditions.
• C. Project management plan
• D. Risk register
• E. Risk response plan

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
is incorrect. The risk management plan addresses the project management's approach to risk management, risk identification, analysis, response, and control. Answer: C is incorrect. The risk response plan only addresses the planned risk responses for the identified risk events in the risk register. Answer: B is incorrect. The project management plan is the overarching plan for the project, not the specifics of the risk responses and risk identification.

NEW QUESTION # 242
A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

• A. provide a quantified detailed analysis
• B. map findings to objectives
• C. quantify key risk indicators (KRIs)
• D. recommend risk tolerance thresholds

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 243
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To pass the CRISC certification exam, candidates must demonstrate their proficiency in a range of topics related to risk management, information security, and control monitoring. These include understanding the principles of risk management, developing and implementing a risk management strategy, and identifying and assessing risks related to information technology. Candidates must also demonstrate their ability to design and implement controls to mitigate risks, as well as monitor and report on the effectiveness of those controls.

ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) certification exam is a globally recognized certification that focuses on risk management and information systems control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is designed for IT professionals who are responsible for identifying, evaluating, and managing information systems and technology risks. CRISC certification holders are expected to possess expertise in risk management and control, as well as proficiency in the design, implementation, and monitoring of information systems.

 

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