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NEW QUESTION # 160
A security analyst needs to provide evidence of regular vulnerability scanning on the company's network for an auditing process. Which of the following is an example of a tool that can produce such evidence?

• A. Wireshark
• B. OpenVAS
• C. Nmap
• D. Burp Suite

Answer: B

Explanation:
OpenVAS is an open-source tool that performs comprehensive vulnerability scanning and assessment on the network. It can generate reports and evidence of the scan results, which can be used for auditing purposes.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 199; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 207.

NEW QUESTION # 161
An organization has established a formal change management process after experiencing several critical system failures over the past year. Which of the following are key factors that the change management process will include in order to reduce the impact of system failures? (Select two).

• A. Require diagrams to be completed for all critical systems.
• B. Ensure users the document system recovery plan prior to deployment.
• C. Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system.
• D. Perform a full system-level backup following the change.
• E. Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change.
• F. Leverage an audit tool to identify changes that are being made.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
The correct answers for key factors in the change management process to reduce the impact of system failures are:
D: Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change.
F: Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system.
D: Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change: This is crucial in change management because understanding the interdependencies among assets can help anticipate and mitigate the potential cascading effects of a change. By identifying these dependencies, the organization can plan more effectively for changes and minimize the risk of unintended consequences that could lead to system failures.
F: Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system: Maintaining an accurate and comprehensive inventory of assets is fundamental in change management. Knowing exactly what assets the organization possesses and their characteristics allows for better planning and impact analysis when changes are made. This ensures that no critical component is overlooked during the change process, reducing the risk of failures due to incomplete information.
Other Options:
A: Ensure users document system recovery plan prior to deployment: While documenting a system recovery plan is important, it's more related to disaster recovery and business continuity planning than directly reducing the impact of system failures due to changes.
B: Perform a full system-level backup following the change: While backups are essential, they are generally a reactive measure to recover from a failure, rather than a proactive measure to reduce the impact of system failures in the first place.
C: Leverage an audit tool to identify changes that are being made: While using an audit tool is helpful for tracking changes and ensuring compliance, it is not directly linked to reducing the impact of system failures due to changes.
E: Require diagrams to be completed for all critical systems: While having diagrams of critical systems is useful for understanding and managing them, it is not a direct method for reducing the impact of system failures due to changes. Diagrams are more about documentation and understanding rather than proactive change management.

NEW QUESTION # 162
A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan of the network. Which of the following would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration?

• A. Registry key values
• B. IP address
• C. Open ports
• D. Operating system version

Answer: A

Explanation:
Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials.
Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving the hostname or using network discovery tools.

NEW QUESTION # 163
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a large financial institution is seeking a solution that will block a predetermined set of data points from being transferred or downloaded by employees. The CISO also wants to track the data assets by name, type, content, or data profile.
Which of the following BEST describes what the CIS wants to purchase?

• A. SIEM
• B. DLP
• C. File integrity monitor
• D. Asset tagging

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 164
The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team is required to come up with priorities for the program.
Which of the following is the best priority based on common attack frameworks?

• A. Conduct thorough incident response
• B. Employ a network-based IDS
• C. Reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts
• D. Enable SSO to enterprise applications

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The best priority based on common attack frameworks for a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach is to reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts.
Administrator and privileged access accounts are accounts that have elevated permissions or capabilities to perform sensitive or critical tasks on systems or networks, such as installing software, changing configurations, accessing data, or granting access. Reducing the administrator and privileged access accounts can help minimize the attack surface, as it can limit the number of potential targets or entry points for attackers, as well as reduce the impact or damage of an attack if an account is compromised.

NEW QUESTION # 165
A company is deploying new vulnerability scanning software to assess its systems. The current network is highly segmented, and the networking team wants to minimize the number of unique firewall rules. Which of the following scanning techniques would be most efficient to achieve the objective?

• A. Deploy a cloud-based scanner and perform a network scan.
• B. Deploy a scanner sensor on every segment and perform credentialed scans.
• C. Deploy agents on all systems to perform the scans.
• D. Deploy a central scanner and perform non-credentialed scans.

Answer: C

Explanation:
USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems.
The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.
References:
CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 247
What are Attack Vectors: Definition & Vulnerabilities, section "How to secure attack vectors" Are there any attack vectors for a printer connected through USB in a Windows environment?, answer by user "schroeder"

NEW QUESTION # 166
Which of the following is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system?

• A. Quantity of intrusion attempts
• B. Alert volume
• C. Mean time to detect
• D. Number of exploits by tactic

Answer: C

Explanation:
Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations. Official Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack

NEW QUESTION # 167
A security analyst would like to integrate two different SaaS-based security tools so that one tool can notify the other in the event a threat is detected. Which of the following should the analyst utilize to best accomplish this goal?

• A. SMTP notification
• B. SNMP trap
• C. SMB share
• D. API endpoint

Answer: D

Explanation:
An API endpoint is a point of entry for a communication between two different SaaS-based security tools. It allows one tool to send requests and receive responses from the other tool using a common interface. An API endpoint can be used to notify the other tool in the event a threat is detected and trigger an appropriate action. SMB share, SMTP notification, and SNMP trap are not suitable for SaaS integration security, as they are either network protocols or email services that do not provide a direct and secure communication between two different SaaS tools. Reference: Top 10 Best SaaS Security Tools - 2023, What is SaaS Security? A Guide to Everything SaaS Security, 6 Key Considerations for SaaS Integration Security | Prismatic, Introducing Security for Interconnected SaaS - Palo Alto Networks

NEW QUESTION # 168
A security analyst must preserve a system hard drive that was involved in a litigation request Which of the following is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified?

• A. Generate a hash value and make a backup image.
• B. Encrypt the device to ensure confidentiality of the data.
• C. Protect the device with a complex password.
• D. Perform a memory scan dump to collect residual data.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Generating a hash value and making a backup image is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified, as it creates a verifiable copy of the original data that can be used for forensic analysis. Encrypting the device, protecting it with a password, or performing a memory scan dump do not prevent the data from being altered or deleted. Verified References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide, page
3291

NEW QUESTION # 169
A virtual web server in a server pool was infected with malware after an analyst used the internet to research a system issue. After the server was rebuilt and added back into the server pool, users reported issues with the website, indicating the site could not be trusted. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the server issue?

• A. The malware infected all the web servers in the pool.
• B. The server was configured to use SSL to securely transmit data.
• C. The digital certificate on the web server was self-signed.
• D. The server was supporting weak TLS protocols for client connections.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A digital certificate is a document that contains the public key and identity information of a web server, and is signed by a trusted third-party authority called a certificate authority (CA). A digital certificate allows the web server to establish a secure connection with the clients using the HTTPS protocol, and also verifies the authenticity of the web server. A self-signed certificate is a digital certificate that is not signed by a CA, but by the web server itself. A self-signed certificate can cause issues with the website, as it may not be trusted by the clients or their browsers.
Clients may receive warnings or errors when trying to access the website, indicating that the site could not be trusted or that the connection is not secure.

NEW QUESTION # 170
Which of following would best mitigate the effects of a new ransomware attack that was not properly stopped by the company antivirus?

• A. Install a firewall.
• B. Update the application blocklist.
• C. Deploy sandboxing.
• D. Implement vulnerability management.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 171
A security analyst reviews the following extract of a vulnerability scan that was performed against the web server:

Which of the following recommendations should the security analyst provide to harden the web server?

• A. Close port 22.
• B. Delete the /wp-login.php folder.
• C. Remove the version information on http-server-header.
• D. Disable tcp_wrappers.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 172
After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high. The CISO refused the software request. Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select?

• A. Mitigate
• B. Transfer
• C. Accept
• D. Avoid

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management.

NEW QUESTION # 173
A security analyst received an alert regarding multiple successful MFA log-ins for a particular user. When reviewing the authentication logs, the analyst sees the following:

Which of the following are most likely occurring, base on the MFA logs? (Choose two.)

• A. Push phishing
• B. Dictionary attack
• C. Password spray
• D. Impossible geo-velocity
• E. Rogue access point
• F. Subscriber identity module swapping

Answer: D,F

NEW QUESTION # 174
SIMULATION
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company's distribution center. The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following:
- There must be one primary server or service per device.
- Only default ports should be used.
- Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
- The corporate Internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the tools available, discover devices on the corporate network and the services that are running on these devices.
You must determine:
- The IP address of each device.
- The primary server or service of each device.
- The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 175
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CompTIA CS0-003 (CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification) is a widely recognized certification exam for IT professionals who want to specialize in cybersecurity. CS0-003 exam covers a range of topics related to threat detection, incident response, security analytics, and vulnerability management, and is designed to validate a candidate's ability to perform real-world cybersecurity tasks. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized globally and is a requirement for many cybersecurity positions in both the public and private sectors.

 

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