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[Q56-Q79] Real Exam Questions CTFL-Foundation Dumps Exam Questions in here [Nov-2024]

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Real Exam Questions CTFL-Foundation Dumps Exam Questions in here [Nov-2024]

Get Latest Nov-2024 Conduct effective penetration tests using CTFL-Foundation


The ISQI CTFL-Foundation exam is ideal for individuals starting their career in software testing or for those who are already working in the field and wish to validate their skills and knowledge. It is also useful for project managers, quality managers, and software developers who want to understand the testing process better. ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level certification provides professionals with a global standard for software testing, ensuring they have a common language and understanding when working alongside colleagues and organizations from around the world.

 

NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

  • A. Logging the outcome of test execution.
  • B. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
  • C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
  • D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Logging the outcome of test execution is part of the test execution phase, not directly related to the exit criteria. Major tasks of exit criteria include checking test logs against specified criteria, assessing if additional tests are needed, and writing test summary reports for stakeholders. The ISTQB CTFL Syllabus specifies these tasks as part of the exit criteria to ensure that testing meets the planned objectives and that sufficient testing has been conducted before concluding the testing phase.


NEW QUESTION # 57
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit

  • A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
  • B. Status compared against the started exit criteria
  • C. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
  • D. Recommendations for taking controlling actions

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 58
А booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:
Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day's peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.
When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

  • A. 0600, 1000, 1200
  • B. 1001, 1300, 2259
  • C. 0100, 0800, 2200
  • D. 2400, 1000, 2301

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following are the most important factors to be taken into account when selecting test techniques?
(i) Tools available.
(ii) Regulatory standards.
(iii) Experience of the development team.
(iv) Knowledge of the test team.
The need to maintain levels of capability in each technique.

  • A. (i) and (v)
  • B. (ii) and (iv)
  • C. (i) and (ii)
  • D. (iii) and (iv)

Answer: B

Explanation:
Answer (i) looks temptingly right, and the availability of tools might make the use of a technique more or less attractive, but it would not be decisive in the way that regulatory standards and tester knowledge are.
Answer (iii) is irrelevant because testing should be independent of development anyway, but it could tempt someone who is unsure about the relationship between development and testing.
Answer (v) is a factor in managing the test team, and experience would need to be maintained, but this should not influence the selection of techniques for a live project.


NEW QUESTION # 60
Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

  • A. No mentioning of reproduceability
  • B. No priority or severity assigned
  • C. Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
  • D. No classification on type of incident

Answer: B

Explanation:
Topic 12, Scenario 12 "Automatic Teller Machine (ATM)"
You are a test manager in charge of integration, system and acceptance testing for a bank.
You are working on a project to upgrade an existing ATM to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash advances from EUR20 to EUR500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards are American Express, VISA, Eurocard and Mastercard.
In the master test plan the following items are listed in the section named "items and/or features to be tested":
I All supported credit cards
II Language localization
III Valid and invalid advances
IV Usability
V Response time


NEW QUESTION # 61
The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

  • A. Component, integration, system and acceptance.
  • B. Unit, integration, system and maintenance.
  • C. Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.
  • D. Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are Component, Integration, System, and Acceptance testing. These levels align with the development stages in the V-model,where each level of testing corresponds to a specific phase in the software development lifecycle, ensuring comprehensive verification and validation of the software.


NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following statements about test automation is CORRECT?

  • A. Test management tools should not interface with other testing tools as they are only required for use by the test manager
  • B. When performing automated static analysis, warning messages that do not stop the code from being compiled and translated into an executable program, should be ignored
  • C. When using data-driven testing, testers create and store test inputs separately from the test script allowing the same test script to be run with different data sets
  • D. In keyword-driven testing specific keywords are included in scripts to indicate to the tester that they must enter a particular value at that point

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

  • A. Introduction of a test management tool
  • B. Data migration
  • C. System modification
  • D. System retirement

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

  • A. Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.
  • B. Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.
  • C. Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.
  • D. Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When evaluating risks, both the likelihood of failure and the potential cost of impact must be considered. The risk with the highest level is determined by the product of these two factors. In this case, a 10% likelihood of failure with a potential cost of impact of $500,000 results in a higher risk (expected impact) compared to the other options. The expected impact is calculated as likelihood multiplied by impact, which is higher for option B; Top of Form Bottom of Form


NEW QUESTION # 65
Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? Select 2 options.

  • A. Inspection.
  • B. Technical Review
  • C. Management review.
  • D. Informal review.
  • E. Walkthrough

Answer: A,B


NEW QUESTION # 66
Which activity in the fundamental test process includes test script generation?

  • A. Test planning and control
  • B. Test implementation and execution
  • C. Test closure activities
  • D. Test analysis and design

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference http://tryqa.com/what-is-fundamental-test-process-in-software-testing/


NEW QUESTION # 67
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: "The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materialized, it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

  • A. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product.
  • B. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timelines is a product risk.
  • C. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it.
  • D. It is a project risk since successful completion of the project depends on successful and timely completion of the tests.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 68
Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits

  • A. Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.
  • B. More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.
  • C. It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.
  • D. It will extend the development team's abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?

  • A. Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults.
  • B. Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects.
  • C. Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.
  • D. Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

  • A. They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs
  • B. They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level
  • C. They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available
  • D. They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 71
Which statement correctly describes the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics?

  • A. Public: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest. Profession: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions.
  • B. Public: Certified software testers shall act in the best interests of their client and employer (being consistent with the wider public interest). Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest.
  • C. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions.
    Profession: Certified software testers shall participate in lifelong learning regarding the practice of their profession and shall promote an ethical approach to the practice of their profession.
  • D. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions.
    Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest.

Answer: D

Explanation:
All other answers contain an activity identified as analysis and design that is part of implementation and test execution.


NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following has the typical formal review activities in the correct sequence?

  • A. Planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting.
  • B. Planning, individual preparation, follow-up, re-work.
  • C. Kick-off, planning, review meeting, re-work.
  • D. Kick-off, review meeting, planning, follow-up.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The typical sequence of formal review activities includes planning, kick-off, individual preparation, and review meeting. The planning phase sets the scope and objectives, the kick-off initiates the review process, individual preparation involves participants reviewing the materials on their own, and then the review meeting is held to discuss the findings. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 3.2.2.


NEW QUESTION # 73
Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are:

  • A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
  • B. All of the above
  • C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
  • D. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 74
From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2] a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

  • A. a and b.
  • B. c and d.
  • C. a and d.
  • D. b and c.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Experience-based techniques rely on the testers' knowledge, skills, and experience, as well as insights from developers and users, to design test cases. These techniques do not depend on formal models or the internal structure of the software but rather on practical experience and understanding of how the software is likely to be used and where defects are likely to be found.


NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following can be a common objective of testing?

  • A. Providing information as part of the debugging activity
  • B. Making sure the system performs as fast and as efficient as needed
  • C. Gaining confidence about the level of the system's quality
  • D. Fixing defects to improve the system's quality characteristics

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: (none)


NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

  • A. Error, fault, failure
  • B. Failure, bug, error
  • C. Fault, bug, mistake
  • D. Mistake, failure, fault

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following correctly describes the goal of Statement Testing?

  • A. Increase the percentage of executable statements that are exercised by a test set
  • B. Assess of the correctness of key statements in each module of the application
  • C. Assess the number of code statements needed to implement each feature
  • D. Reduce the number of tests needed to test the system

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.guru99.com/code-coverage.html


NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following principles should be followed when introducing a test tool into an organization?
(i) Assessing organizational maturity to establish whether a tool will provide expected benefits.
(ii) Requiring a quick payback on the initial investment.
(iii) Including a requirement for the tool to be easy to use without having to train unskilled testers.
(iv) Identifying and agreeing requirements before evaluating test tools.

  • A. (ii) and (iii)
  • B. (i) and (ii)
  • C. (iii) and (iv)
  • D. (i) and (iv)

Answer: D

Explanation:
Assessing organizational maturity (i) is very important when deciding whether to introduce a test tool, as implementing a tool in an immature test organization with poor processes is unlikely to produce any benefits.
A quick return on the initial investment (ii) in a test tool is rare.
Having a requirement that a tool should be easy to use for untrained and unskilled testers (iii) is generally a false hope. This is comparable with expecting someone who has never driven a car to be able to drive safely and effectively.
Agreeing requirements before evaluating tools (iv) is essential. Not to do so would be comparable with building and testing a system without requirements.
In conclusion, (i) and (iv) are good principles to follow when introducing a tool and (ii) and (iii) are not.


NEW QUESTION # 79
......


ISQI CTFL-Foundation (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level) Exam is a certification that demonstrates an individual’s knowledge and expertise in software testing. CTFL-Foundation exam is designed to test a candidate’s understanding of the basic concepts and principles of software testing, including test design techniques, test management, and test automation. The CTFL-Foundation exam is one of the most recognized and respected certifications in the software testing industry.

 

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